Posted by special_k on March 21, 2006, at 3:18:30
In reply to Obscene profits????, posted by AuntieMel on March 20, 2006, at 17:28:11
Excuse my ignorance...
But how are profits related to share prices / payments?
(Really... I don't know anything about this...)
Are the profits distributed amongst shareholders or something?
Or is there a more indirect relation around profits and shareprices?
> Company A gets hauled off to congress for it's obscene profits (ExxonMobile)
> No one squawks about company B (Coca-cola)Hmm. No idea what the difference would be.
Was other 'relevant information' cited (as to the difference between the two cases)?
Did one maybe lay off a lot of staff?
Cut back on employees benefits or something like that?
poster:special_k
thread:622564
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/poli/20060304/msgs/622753.html